Ralph Q
New member
Ok. I know that there is a loss of psi due to hose length, gpm etc. I was always under the impression that you also lose flow. I have seen several threads and posts all over the place that say you don't lose flow, just psi. I am at a loss as to how this is possible.
EXAMPLE: If I am running a 10 gpm, 2500 psi machine and I am losing 900 psi with 200 feet of hose, How can my psi be 1600, with a #14 nozzle? If my machine is still putting out 10 gpm's? 10 gpm going through a #14 orifice nozzle produces 2500 psi.
I always thought that the friction caused back pressure that triggered the unloader to bypass water, and that's how you can get 1600 psi through a #`14 nozzle.
I looked at my bypass hose when I am running 200 feet of hose and saw water bypassing, never really looked hard enough but it looks like about a 1/2 gallon is being bypassed, but I am not sure. Now that doesn't make sense. I should be seeing about 1.25 gallons being bypassed, to get 1600 psi with a #14 nozzle. ( I'm actually using a #15 nozzle, but that's another story)
Is there some part of the law of physics that can account for this? How to get 10 gpms through a #14 nozzle and only produce 1600 psi? Has anyone really checked to see how much is actually being bypassed? I saw people say you can put 18 gpms through a 3/8" hose and you only lose pressure not flow. I can't understand the principle behind this. If you don't lose flow, how can the pressure be less through the same nozzle? Has anybody ever thought about this?
This is perplexing me because I always just assumed the unloader was bypassing the water needed to reduce the pressure, and that would make sense. But people are saying you don't lose flow, so that makes this very hard to grasp the concept.
EXAMPLE: If I am running a 10 gpm, 2500 psi machine and I am losing 900 psi with 200 feet of hose, How can my psi be 1600, with a #14 nozzle? If my machine is still putting out 10 gpm's? 10 gpm going through a #14 orifice nozzle produces 2500 psi.
I always thought that the friction caused back pressure that triggered the unloader to bypass water, and that's how you can get 1600 psi through a #`14 nozzle.
I looked at my bypass hose when I am running 200 feet of hose and saw water bypassing, never really looked hard enough but it looks like about a 1/2 gallon is being bypassed, but I am not sure. Now that doesn't make sense. I should be seeing about 1.25 gallons being bypassed, to get 1600 psi with a #14 nozzle. ( I'm actually using a #15 nozzle, but that's another story)
Is there some part of the law of physics that can account for this? How to get 10 gpms through a #14 nozzle and only produce 1600 psi? Has anyone really checked to see how much is actually being bypassed? I saw people say you can put 18 gpms through a 3/8" hose and you only lose pressure not flow. I can't understand the principle behind this. If you don't lose flow, how can the pressure be less through the same nozzle? Has anybody ever thought about this?
This is perplexing me because I always just assumed the unloader was bypassing the water needed to reduce the pressure, and that would make sense. But people are saying you don't lose flow, so that makes this very hard to grasp the concept.
